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House of Commons (Participation) Bill

Does not my right hon. Friend’s reference to the Sewel motion procedure highlight one of the practical difficulties of the Bill promoted by the hon. Member for North Dorset? Were the measure passed, a Bill might go through the House on which Scottish MPs were excluded from voting because of its provisions, but a Sewel motion might be adopted that would mean that the Bill would then apply to Scotland, even though Scottish MPs had not been involved in the process of deliberation. Would that be either fair or procedurally advantageous to anybody?