---

Government of Wales Bill

I am sorry to interrupt the noble Lord, but he previously made a very important statement. He said that Section 28 of the previous Act had not been repeated but had not been repealed. In that case it is still, presumably, in force, in which case all the stuff he said about not interfering with the Welsh Assembly’s freedom presumably does not apply because the restriction is still there in law. Why is he making a speech therefore saying that the Assembly should have full powers on this issue, while maintaining on the statute book a section that specifically prevents it having them? I am delighted that there is a section still on the statute book, but he appears to be making a speech that is not related to that fact.