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Banking Bill

Amendment 98 adds a new requirement for the independence of an independent valuer to be defined in an order. I had expected that the term ““independent valuer”” would be defined in some way in the Bill but could find nothing. Independence is of course a term of art, not science. It varies according to the context. It therefore may be difficult to define on an ex ante basis, but ought not to be difficult to define when coming to an individual order. What do the Government have in mind? Will it always be the case that the valuer is independent of the tripartite authorities; that is, the Bank of England, the Treasury and the FSA? Does the valuer have to be independent of any person who could benefit from a compensation order? In the case of widely held securities, how is that to be interpreted if the valuer is, say, a partnership or a company? Will the interests of the valuer’s partners or fellow directors, their spouses or other family members, be taken into account? How rigorous will the Government be in establishing independence? Does the valuer have to be independent of the bank concerned, or the property or shares being valued, or does that apply to all commercial relationships that might have been entered into between the valuer and the bank or property at some point in the past? Is there a period over which it is to be calculated? Are there to be any de minimis limits? I hope the Minister will see that there is a case for an order being specific as to independence criteria. That would give some comfort to those who would be affected by an order, most notably the shareholders, but also others who are affected. If the Minister will not accept my amendment, will he set out for the record how independence is to be established? It may even assist the Committee if the Minister sets out what rules for independence were set for the Northern Rock valuer and what is proposed for the Bradford & Bingley valuer, who I believe will be appointed in the near future. I beg to move.